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EXAM 4 Quiz Questions and Answers
Principles of Organismal Biology (BIO 4B)
Saddleback College
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Animal Form and Function 1. Organisms maintain dynamic homeostasis, through behavioral and physiological mechanisms. Which of the following statements is an accurate explanation of a negative feedback mechanism used by animals to regulate body temperature? a. A ground squirrel’s hypothalamus detects changes in environmental temperatures and responds by activating or suppressing metabolic heat production 2. In a cool environment, an ectotherm is more likely to survive an extended period of food deprivation than would an equally-sized endotherm because the ectotherm a. Invests little energy in temperature regulation 3. The metamorphosis of a tadpole to an adult frog involves a thorough reconstruction of the animal's body. All of the structural and physiological changes must be complete or the frog will not survive this transformation. Which type of regulation would ensure that the animal completed its transformation? a. Positive feedback 4. Chum salmon (Oncorhynchus keta) are born in freshwater environments and then migrate to the sea Near the end of their lives, they return to the freshwater stream where they were born to spawn. In freshwater, water constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body. In salt water, body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the water.
A salmon's gills have special cells to pump salt in or out of the body to maintain homeostasis. IN response to the salmon's moves between freshwater and salt water, some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed. These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an individual salmon are an example of ...? a. Acclimatization 5. If a person were to travel to a time zone that was several hours ahead of their own, they may experience tiredness known as jet lag. Jet lag is due to a disruption of a. Circadian rhythm 6. Elephants can be observed cooling off by covering themselves in water. Being wet cools them. What type of heat exchange is occurring? a. Evaporation 7. A woman standing and watching the stars on a cool, calm night will lose most of her body heat by? a. Radiation 8. Use the graph to answer the following question (graph depicts body mass vs BMR/metabolic rate). What can you determine from the graph? a. An animal with a larger mass has a lower metabolic rate per gram of tissue relative to an animal with smaller mass 9. The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the
a. Hypothalamus 10. Hummingbirds are small birds that require a regular food supply. When hummingbirds are faced with a situation that decreases their food supply, such as a storm, which of the following adaptations would be most useful for the bird to survive such an unpredictable and short-term absence of food resources? a. Torpor 11. Standard metabolic rate (SMR) and basal metabolic rate (BVR) are? a. Both measured in animals in a resting and fasting state 12. When the body's blood glucose level rises the pancreas secretes insulin and as a result the blood glucose level declines. When the blood glucose level is low the pancreas secretes glucagon and as a result the blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of the blood glucose level is the result of... a. Negative feedback 13. In certain animals, the metabolic breakdown of specialized brown fat deposits with no ATP production is a. Nonshivering thermogenesis 14. Consider energy budgets for a human, an elephant, a penguin, a mouse, and a snake. The ______ would have the highest total annual energy expenditure, and the _____ would have the highest energy expenditure per unit mass. a. Elephant, mouse 15. Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment? a. Wind blowing across the body surface 16. The panting responses observed in overheated birds and mammals dissipate excess heat by a. Evaporation 17. Use the figure to answer the following question (depicts Canada goose and artery/vein anatomy) The thin horizontal arrows in the figure above show that the___ a. Warmer arterial blood transfers heat to the cooler venous blood 18. What would be an advantage for an animal that conforms to a changing environmental condition, such as temperature? a. The animal would spend less energy regulating its internal temperature 19. Independent of whether an organism is an endotherm or ectoderm, the least reliable indicator of an animal’s metabolic rate is the amount of____ a. Water consumed in one day 20. The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a constant and optimal internal environment is termed as a. homeostasis
- Activation of a naive B cell requires _________________. a. cytokines from a helper T cell
- If somebody has developed long-term immunity to a pathogen, what would happen upon second exposure to the pathogen? a. Antibodies would be produced quickly and more would be produced than from
- Upon damage to tissues, what is the first step of the inflammation response? a. mast cells release histamine and macrophages release cytokines
- Which is true of innate immunity (compared with adaptive immunity)? a. It is the faster response.
- The humoral immune response_______________. a. involves antibodies
Viruses 1. A virus always _______________. a. consists of genetic material in a capsid 2. Viruses typically have ___. a. A narrow host range 3. Which of the following statements supports the argument that viruses are nonliving? a. They do not carry out metabolic processes. 4. Viruses that infect animals are classified by their a. Genome type and whether or not they have an envelope 5. Which of the following processes can viruses carry out? a. They can use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins. 6. What would result in genetic recombination in bacteria? a. the lysogenic cycle only 7. What is a prion? a. A protein that causes other proteins to become misshapen. 8. What is the function of reverse transcriptase? a. It makes a viral DNA copy of the viral RNA 9. The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virus particles during which of the following parts of the reproductive cycle? a. the lytic cycle only 10. A viral envelope. a. has both viral and host molecules 11. Coronavirus is a ___________ virus. a. Single-stranded RNA, enveloped 12. Which of the following descriptions correctly identifies the main structural differences between viruses with envelopes and viruses without envelopes? a. Viruses with envelopes have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid, whereas viruses without envelopes do not have a phospholipid membrane. 13. What features of the influenza virus are used to name it? a. Its surface proteins 14. What is the role of the CRISPR - Cas system in nature a. It is a mechanism by which prokaryotes protect themselves from viral infection
Cell communication 1. What are scaffolding proteins? a. large molecules to which several relay proteins attach to facilitate cascade effects 2. Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase. Therefore, the cells of a person who has recently consumed coffee would have increased levels of which of the following molecules? a. cAMP
a. paracrine signaling 16. Put the steps of the process of signal transduction in the order they occur
- A conformational change in the single receptor complex activates an enzymes
- Protein kinases are activated
- A single molecule binds to a receptor
- Target proteins are phosphorylated
- Second messenger molecules are released a. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
- Use the following figure to answer the question. In the figure, what kind of signaling is represented? a. synaptic
- Use the following figure to answer the question. In the figure, the dots in the space between the two structures represent which of the following? a. neurotransmitters
- Which of the following types of signaling is represented in the figure? a. synaptic
- What does it mean to say that signal transduction occurs? a. The physical form of the signal changes as it passes from the cell membrane to the ultimate intracellular target.
- When a neuron responds to a particular neurotransmitter by opening gated ion channels, the neurotransmitter is serving as which part of the signal pathway? a. signal molecule
- What role do phosphatases play in signal transduction pathways? a. They inactivate protein kinases to turn off signal transduction.
- Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ. Which of the following conditions is required for the target organ to respond to a particular hormone? a. The target organ must have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule.
- At puberty, an adolescent female body changes in both structure and function of several organ systems, primarily under the influence of changing concentrations of estrogen and other steroid hormones. How can one hormone, such as estrogen, mediate so many effects? a. Estrogen binds to different types of specific receptors. Each binding results in a different response. Therefore, organs each have a unique response to the same hormone.
- Which of the following statements describes the events of apoptosis?
a. The cell's DNA and organelles become fragmented, the cell shrinks and forms blebs, and the cell's parts are packaged in vesicles that are digested by specialized cells. 26. Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane? a. ligand-gated ion channel 27. Not all intercellular signals require transduction. Which one of the following signals would be processed without transduction? a. a lipid-soluble signal 28. What is a primary function of transcription factors? a. They control gene expression. 29. Which of the following statements is true of steroid receptors? a. The receptor may be inside the nucleus of a target cell.
Neurons, synapses and signaling quiz 1. When two excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) occur at a single synapse so rapidly in succession that the postsynaptic neuron's membrane potential has not returned to the resting potential before the second EPSP arrives, the EPSPs add together producing ________. a. temporal summation 2. Which of the following statements about action potentials is correct? a. Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon. 3. Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via ________. a. exocytosis 4. The membrane potential in which there is no net movement of the ion across the membrane due to a balance of the electrical and chemical gradients is called the ________. a. equilibrium potential 5. The minimum graded depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label ________. a. A 6. At label ________, the cell is not hyperpolarized; however, repolarization is in progress, as the sodium channels are inactivated or becoming inactivated, and many potassium channels have opened. a. C 7. The operation of the sodium-potassium pump moves ________.
- Which of the following ions is most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron? a. K+
- The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the ________.
a. Synapse
- Why do Na+ ions enter the cell when voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened in neurons?
a. because the Na+ concentration is much higher outside the cell than it is inside,
and the Na+ ions are attracted to the negatively charged interior
- For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement
of potassium ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in the ________.
a. hyperpolarization of the neuron
- In a resting potential, an example of a cation that is more abundant as a solute in the
cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is ________.
a. K+
- If excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are produced nearly simultaneously through
two different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron, the EPSPs can also add together
creating ________.
a. a spatial summation
- A graded hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by ________.
a. increasing its membrane's permeability to K+
- In multiple sclerosis, the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and spinal cord are
damaged and demyelination results. How does this disease manifest at the level of the
action potential?
I. Actions potentials move in the opposite direction on the axon
II. Action potential move slowly along the axon
III. No action potentials are transmitted
a. Only II
- If you experimentally increase the concentration of K+ inside a cell while maintaining other
ion concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
a. The membrane potential would become less negative.
- What happens if twice as many inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) as excitatory
postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) arrive in close proximity at a postsynaptic neuron?
a. No action potential results.
- The "threshold" potential of a membrane is the ________.
a. minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium
channels
- Neurotransmitters categorized as inhibitory are expected to ________.
a. hyperpolarize the membrane
- After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by
________.
a. the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the inactivation of sodium channels
Sensory and Motor mechanism
- The axons of which cells form the optic nerve?
a. Ganglion cells
- It can be very difficult to select an angle for sneaking up to a grasshopper to catch it
because grasshoppers have ________
a. Compound eyes with multiple ommatidia
- Light shining on a photoreceptor does what?
a. Induce tropomyosin and troponin to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin.
- The outer part of the ear that you see from the outside is the
a. pinna
- _________________ allows background and repetitive stimuli to be blocked out.
a. Sensory adaptation
- The shoulder joint is a _______________ joint
a. ball and socket
- The conversion of a stimulus into an action potential by a receptor cell is called
________.
a. Transduction
- Statocysts contain cells that are ________.
a. mechanoreceptors used to detect orientation relative to gravity
- The functional unit of a myofibril is the _______________.
a. sarcomere
- What causes a blind spot?
a. optic disk
- A photoreceptor is a sensory receptor cell that releases glutamate into the synaptic cleft
that is shared with an afferent neuron. The photoreceptor is a _____________.
a. non-neuronal receptor
- Statocyts_______________.
a. are organs of gravity perception in invertebrates.
- The outer part of the ear that you see from the outside is the
a. pinna
- When lifting something very heavy, you need stronger muscle contractions. This can be
achieved by
a. increasing the number of muscle fibers that contract.
b. NOT increasing the threshold of action potential. (i got this wrong)
c. slowing down the rate of muscle fiber stimulation.
d. increasing the peak membrane potential of the axon.
- Compared to oxidative skeletal muscle fibers, those classified as glycolytic typically have
________.
a. less resistance to fatigue
- What part of the eye is stimulated by light?
a. retina
- An ultramarathon runner would need to have a high abundance of
a. slow twitch muscles
- A larger receptor potential in a neuronal receptor will create _______________.
a. the same action potential frequency as would be created by a smaller receptor
potential
b. a higher action potential frequency than would be created by smaller receptor
potential
c. a need for the threshold to be higher
- Methyl jasmonate is a plant-derived compound that blocks mosquito carbon dioxide
receptors. What would you expect to happen if you applied this compound to your skin
and then exposed yourself to a swarm of mosquitos?
a. The mosquitos would lack an important piece of sensory information for finding a
host, and so would be less likely to bite you.
a. Muscle contractions would be prevented, causing paralysis.
- The lateral line system of fish has what type of receptor cells?
a. mechanoreceptors
- For a skeletal muscle contraction to occur _________________.
a. The troponin complex must not block the myosin binding sites.
Question 1
Describe the difference between innate and adaptive immunity in terms of their role in
protection from pathogens, speed of response, specificity and the components involved.
Innate immunity occurs in all animals. The recognition of traits is shared by broad ranges of
pathogens, using a small set of receptors. The response is rapid. Barrier defenses include skin
and mucous secretions, and internal defenses such as phagocytic cells and inflammatory
responses.
Adaptive immunity occurs in vertebrates only, and recognition of traits is specific to particular
pathogens using a vast array of receptors. The response is slower. It has the humoral response,
where antibodies defend against infection in body fluids, and the cell-mediated response, where
cytotoxic cells defend against infection in body cells.
TLDR: Innate immunity is in all animals, has a broad range of pathogens using a small set of
receptors, and has a rapid response. Has barrier and internal defenses. Adaptive immunity is
vertebrates only, traits are specific to pathogens with many receptors, and response is slow. Has
humoral and cell-mediated response.
Question 2
Describe the process of B cell activation by helper T cells, including helper T cell activation
by antigen presenting cells and the result of B cell activation, including short-term immune
response and long-term immunity and the types of B cells involved.
In cell-mediated responses, cytotoxic T cells defend against infection in body cells by destroying
infected host cells. The activation of the cytotoxic T cells also creates memory T cells.
Question 4
Name and briefly describe the three types of membrane receptors and the events that
follow signal-receptor binding for each type of receptor.
The three types of membrane receptors are G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs), receptor tyrosine kinases and ion channel receptors.
G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) are the largest family of human cell surface receptors with more than 800 different types of GPCRs GDP is bound to G protein the G protein is inactive. Then binding of the signaling molecule to the receptor changes the receptor’s shape (activates receptor). Active receptor binds G protein, displacing GDP with GTP. The activated G protein dissociates from the receptor and diffuses along the membrane and activates the enzyme. THe G protein hydrolyzes GTP to GDP+Pi inactivating the enzyme
Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) Receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) are made from two monomers which are tyrosine kinases. Ligand binding causes tyrosine kinase monomers to dimerize. The dimerized monomers each act as tyrosine kinases transferring a phosphate from ATP to a tyrosine on the opposite monomer. The now fully activated RTK attracts, binds and activates relay proteins, initiating a relay to a cellular response. The active RTK can trigger multiple signal transduction pathways at once.
Ligand gated ion The receptors act as a gate that opens and closes when the receptor changes shape. The ion channel is closed when there is no ligand bond. The ligand binding causes ion channels to change shape and open, ions diffuse across the channel. Specific ions such as Na or Ca. The ligand dissociation causes ion channels to close, blocking diffusion of ions.
Question 5
Describe the mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction by listing the events that occur,
beginning with the motor neuron impulse at the synapse through to the contraction event.
Motor neurons transmit signals to muscle cells, causing them to contract. The signal is
transmitted via changes in ion concentrations across the nerve cell’s axon membrane.
Relaxation: myosin head is in low-energy state, bound to ATP
Contraction is initiated, ATP is hydrolyzed, activating and opening myosin head
Myosin head binds to actin, forming a cross bridge
Contraction: myosin head resumes low-energy state with the release of ADP+Pi from
myosin head. Bending of myosin head pulls active filament towards sarcomere center.
Question 6
Compare the processes of negative feedback and positive feedback and describe an
example of each.
Negative feedback loop will bring conditions back to the set point and is a homeostasis mechanism. An example of a negative feedback loop would be blood sugar regulation. When the blood glucose level is too low, the pancreas releases glucagon and the liver will break down, store the glycogen and release glucose into the blood. If blood glucose levels are high the pancreas will release insulin and the liver will remove the glucose from blood and store it as glycogen. A positive feedback loop is a mechanism that moves a variable further and further away from the starting point. An example of a positive feedback loop is childbirth. As it causes the uterine contraction to increase in strength. The pressures of the baby’s head against the sensor stimulates the uterus to contract. The contractions result in the greater pressures against the opening of the uterus. The greater contraction causes even more greater pressure, these contractions get stronger and the pressure does.
TLDR: Negative feedback is where conditions return to the set point. Events of negative
feedback include stimulus, sensor, and response (as a loop). Positive feedback serves to magnify
a process or increase its output. For example, contractions during childbirth increase in strength
until the baby is expelled from the womb.
EXAM 4 Quiz Questions and Answers
Course: Principles of Organismal Biology (BIO 4B)
University: Saddleback College
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