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1. Final Spring 2017 (النوبة) (PH343)

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parasoty (221)

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Department of Pharmacology - Faculty of Medicine - University of Tripoli. Final Exam in Pharmacology for the 6th Semester Medical Students.

Student Name:. Student No..

Multiple Choice Questions. Time: 3hours. Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question, and transfer your answers into the computer sheet provided. You must answer all 80 questions provided; there are 65 questions (one mark each) for lecture topics and 15 questions (one mark each) for practical sessions. Use ONLY ONE answer computer sheet FOR BOTH to end up with 80 answered questions.

Now answer 65 Lecture Topics Questions

  1. The following drug can kill hypnozoites of P and P: a. Mefloquine. c. Proguanil. b. Doxycycline. d. Primaquine.

  2. Clinical use of penicillamine include: a. Copper poisoning. c. Severe rheumatoid arthritis. b. Wilson's disease. d. All the above.

  3. The following are true regarding anti-tuberculous drugs, EXCEPT: a. Drug combination reduces bacterial resistance. b. Hepatotoxicity is more likely to occur in slow acetylators of isoniazid. c. Rifampicin is form first-line antituberculous drugs. d. Ethambutol may cause optic neuritis and loss of visual acuity.

  4. Regarding idiosyncratic reactions (idiosyncrasy), the following are true, EXCEPT: a. It is a normal (usual) response of a drug or its metabolites. b. It is infrequent. c. It is dose-independent. d. If is genetically determined.

  5. Flucytosine is a synthetic antimycotic compound, but fungi lacking cytosine deaminase are resistant to it. This is because: a. The synthesis of cytosine is high in these types of fungi. b. Its conversion to active metabolite (5-fluorouracil) inside the host tissue is inhibited. c. The production of its active metabolite is very low or might not be produced at all. d. The crucial source of cytosine for these fungal cells is affected and therefore fungi lacking cytosine deaminase are resistant to flucytosine.

  6. Adverse effects of chloroquine include the following, EXCEPT: a. Retinopathy with prolonged use. b. Haemolysis especially in G6PD deficiency persons. c. Congenital abnormalities when used during pregnancy. d. Alopecia and bleaching of hair.

  7. The following are antiviral agent that works as DNA synthesis inhibitors require phosphorylation except: a. Gancyclovir. c. Valgancyclovir. b. Foscarnet. d. Acyclovir.

  8. The combination of Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole (Co-trimoxazole) is used to treat: a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. c. Shigellosis. b. Urinary tract infections. d. All the above.

  9. Which of the following statements correctly pair the antidiabetic drug with its potential adverse effect? a. Miglitol – constipation. c. Insulin – tachycardia. b. Metformin – weight gain. d. Repaglinide – hypoglycemic crisis.

  10. The following are B-lactam antibiotics, EXCEPT: a. Aztreonam. c. Cefepime. b. Imipenem. d. Trimethoprim.

  11. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? a. Lincomycin can be used safely in the treatment of MRSA infection. b. Azithromycin accumulated in macrophages and neutrophils. c. Vancomycin is not absorbed from GIT but can be given orally for treatment of pseudomembranous colitis. d. MLS β resistance is a cross resistance against streptogramin, macrolides and lincoside antibiotics.

  12. Which of the following drugs is used in treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy? a. Rifampicin. c. Isoniazid. b. Streptomycin. d. Pyrazinamide.

  13. The following are luminal amoebicides, EXCEPT: a. Diloxanide. c. Paromomycin. b. Iodoquinol. d. Tetracycline.

  14. Metformin acts by: a. Releasing insulin from pancreas. b. Suppressing gluconeogenesis and glucose output from liver. c. Up regulating insulin receptors. d. Inhibiting degradation of insulin.

  15. All the following are true regarding azithromycin EXCEPT: a. Azithromycin is effective in treatment of respiratory tract infections. b. Doesn't undergo metabolism and excreted in bile unchanged. c. Is not available as oral dosage form. d. Alternative for patient with known penicillin hypersensitivity.

  16. The following statement regarding aminoglycosides is not true: a. They interferes with bacterial protein synthesis. b. They have predominantly bactericidal effects. c. They are effective against anaerobes. d. They have a narrow margin of safety.

  17. Regarding tetracycline all the following are true, EXCEPT: a. Oxytetracycline is a short acting antibiotic and incompletely absorbed from stomach. b. Minocycline is completely absorbed and exerted through the liver. c. Demeclocycline is primarily excreted through the kidney. d. Minocycline is useful in the treatment of acute meningococcal infections.

  18. Which of the following drugs is an advanced generation cephalosporins: a. Meropenem. c. Ceftaroline. b. Cefepime. d. Ceftazidime.

  19. Which of the following infections is not responding to tetracyclines? a. Streptococcal infections. c. Chlamydia infections. b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. d. Mycoplasma pneumonia.

  20. The following drug which tends to reverse insulin resistance by increasing cellular glucose transporters: a. Glibenclamide. c. Rosiglitazone. b. Acarbose. d. Metformin.

  21. All of the following drugs can accelerate metabolism of the thyroid hormone, EXCEPT: a. Phenytoin. c. Penicillin. b. Phenobarbital. d. Rifampin.

  22. Indication of vasopressin are following: a. Diabetes mellitus. c. Pituitary diabetes insipidus. b. Incompleted abortion. d. Hypertension.

  23. One of the following Sulfonamides is used to treat ulcerative colitis: a. Sulfasalazine. c. Sulfacetamide. b. Sulfadiazine. d. Sulfadoxine.

  24. The following antidiabetic drug inhibits intestinal brush border α-glucosidase enzymes: a. Acarbose. c. Pioglitazone. b. Metformin. d. Sitagliptin.

  25. The following drug can be used I for treatment of severe or complicated infection with P. falciparum: a. Quinine. c. Chloroquine. b. Mefloquine. d. Primaquine.

  26. Regarding albendazole, the following are true, EXCEPT: a. It acts by inhibition of microtubules synthesis. b. It should be given with fatty meal to enhance its absorption when used to treat tissue parasites. c. It has vermicidal, larvicidal and ovicidal effect against ascariasis. d. It has narrow-spectrum antihelmenthic effect.

  27. Currently used dopamine agonists decreasing pituitary prolactin secretion are following: a. Bromocriptine. c. Cabergoline. b. Desmopressin. d. Both a & c.

  28. Regarding pharmacogenetics, the following are true, EXCEPT: a. Polygenic influences result in discontinuous type of variations. b. Monogenic influences is also called genetic polymorphism. c. Genetic factor combined with environmental factors are difficult to study. d. Genetic polymorphism is extensively studied.

  29. Regarding artemisinin and its derivatives, the following are true, EXCEPT: a. It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide obtained from Artemisia annua. b. Cleavage of artemisinin in malaria parasite food vacuole produces free radicals. c. Combination with longer acting antimalarial drugs is not recommended. d. IV artesunate can be used to treat severe P. falciparum infection.

  30. Mebendazole is effective against the following, EXCEPT: a. Entrobiusvermicularis. c. Trichinosis. b. Entamoebahistolytica. d. Ankylostomaduodenale.

  31. The posterior pituitary does not secret: a. Vasopressin. c. Oxytocin. b. Growth hormone. d. All of above.

  32. Oxidative polymorphism can be shown in the following drugs, EXCEPT: a. Phenformin. c. Sparteine. b. Tolbutamide. d. Hydralazine.

  33. Which one of the following hormones is produced by anterior lobe of pituitary? a. Growth hormone- releasing hormone (GHRH). b. Calcitonin. c. Antidiuretic hormone. d. Growth hormone (somatotropin).

  34. Acute renal failure that might be produced by amphotericin-B is associated with hyperventilation which might be due to: a. High level of magnesium in the blood. c. Low value of PCO 2. b. The pH of blood exceeding 7. d. Change in PCO 2 / HCO 3 ratio.

  35. Regarding metronidazole and tinidazole, the following are true, EXCEPT: a. Their nitro group is reduced in the sensitive protozoa to give toxic oxygen-free radicals. b. Half-life of metronidazole is longer than half-life of tinidazole. c. They are effective against Giardiasis. d. They are effective against Trichomonas vaginalis.

  36. Regarding Ceftriaxone the following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. It is a 3rd generation Cephalosporins. c. It is resistant to B- lactamases. b. It is used to treat gonorrhea. d. It can be given orally.

  37. The following enzyme is inhibited by fluoroquinolones: a. B-lactamase. c. Dihydrofolate synthase. b. DNA gyrase. d. RNA polymerase.

  38. Sulfonylureas characteristics include the following, EXCEPT: a. Act mainly by augmenting insulin secretion and consequently are effective only when some residual pancreatic beta-cell activity is present. b. Considered for patients who are not overweight, or in whom metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. c. Glibenclamide, a short-acting sulfonylurea, is associated with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia. d. Glibenclamide should be avoided in the elderly and gliclazide or tolbutamide, should be used instead.

  39. Kernicterus and Crystalluria are typical side effects of: a. Sulfonamides. c. Quinolones. b. Cephalosporins. d. Penicillins.

  40. Regarding Ampicillin, the following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. It can be given orally. b. The presence of food may delay oral absorption. c. Resistant to B- lactamase inactivation. d. Having greater activity against gram -ve bacteria than Pen. G.

  41. Regarding macrolides all the following statement is true, EXCEPT: a. Erythromycin hypersensitivity is rarely reported. b. It's an alternative for penicillin in case of penicillin resistant infections. c. Macrolides are generally remarked as safe antibiotics. d. It inhibits hepatic oxidation.

  42. Regarding adverse drug reactions, the following are true, EXCEPT: a. They are undesirable effects produced by therapeutic doses of drugs. b. They are usually reversible. c. May result from exaggerated actions of drugs. d. Type B (bizarre) adverse drug reactions are the most common.

  43. Regarding azithromycin mark the incorrect statement: a. It has an expanded spectrum. b. Excellent pharmacokinetic and long duration of action. c. It's effective against mycoplasma pneumonia. d. It's effective against erythromycin resistant bacteria strains.

  44. Imipenem is usually combined with dehydropeptidase inhibitor: a. Simvastatin. c. Cilastatin. b. Nystatin. d. Ciprofloxacin.

  45. All the following are adverse effects of penicillamine, EXCEPT: a. GIT irritations. c. Skin rashes. b. Hypertension. d. Neurotoxicity with long term therapy.

  46. The following statements regarding GLP-1 are true, EXCEPT: a. Increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion. b. Inhibits glucagon secretion and hepatic glucose production. c. Resistant to dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) degradation. d. Decrease food intake.

  47. In drug-drug interaction all the followings are true, EXCEPT: a. Adrenaline and histamine cause physiological antagonism. b. Morphine and naloxone cause competitive antagonism. c. Alcohol and CNS depressants cause non competitive antagonism. d. Trimethoprim and sulfonamides cause potentiation synergism.

This is the end of the lecture topics questions. Now, in the next page you will start answering the practical session questions.

  1. Regarding treatment of hyperthyroidism all of the following are true, EXCEPT: a. Propranolol is used to relive cardiac symptoms. b. Radioactive iodine is administered orally. c. Potassium perchlorate inhibit peripheral deiodination of T 4 to T 3. d. Thioamides have short half lives.

35 years old, female. No prior history of relevant disease, neither any +ve family history of relevant disease. And now hospitalized because of community acquired pneumonia that was not treated with two courses of antibiotics On Examination: - patient looks uncomfortable with low grade fever and got herpes on the top of her left side of her lips Chest: - decrease of air enter and basal crepitation Other systemic examination: irrelevant

  1. The herpes on her lip treated with following medication: a. Acyclovir. b. Amantadine. c. Interferon α. d. With same antibiotic treated with pneumonia.

  2. After 3 years of diagnosis of HIV and treatment with HAART. On her follow up the patient was discovered having cytomegalovirus retinitis. Which of the following drug is used in this case? a. Foscarnet. b. Ribavirin. c. Amantadine. d. Acyclovir.

  3. Which of the following anti CMV drug has myelosuppression effect? a. Foscarnet. b. Ganciclovir. c. Acyclovir. d. Ribavire.

  4. Patient above is planning pregnancy. Which of the following is the drug of choice to prevent cross infection? a. Gamma globulin. b. Zidovudine. c. Ritonavir. d. Interferon.

A 23-year-old man presented with a 4-week history of coughing, breathlessness, and malaise. He had lost 4Kg in weight. On examination, he was mildly pyrexial (37°C). A diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis was made.

Regarding the mentioned above clinical case choose the most appropriate correct answer in the following MCQs:

  1. Clinical diagnostic tests include the following, EXCEPT: a. Tuberculin skin test. b. Urine analysis. c. Imaging tests. d. Sputum culture.

  2. Treatment should be started with: a. Rifampin. b. Pyrazinamide. c. Isoniazid. d. Isoniazid + Rifampin + Pyrazinamide.

  3. Treatment of tuberculosis is complicated due to many factors which include the following, EXCEPT: a. Causative bacteria don't have a peptidoglycan cell wall and they are intracellular. a. Natural of disease is acute. c. Development of resistance. d. Limited formation about pharmacodynamics of antitubercular.

All Best Wishes

MOTAZ

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1. Final Spring 2017 (النوبة) (PH343)

Course: parasoty (221)

12 Documents
Students shared 12 documents in this course

University: جامعة طرابلس

Was this document helpful?
Final Exam- Course Code, PH343
By MOTAZ October 3, 2017
Department of Pharmacology - Faculty of Medicine - University of Tripoli.
Final Exam in Pharmacology for the 6th Semester Medical Students.
Student Name: .
Student No. .
Multiple Choice Questions. Time: 3hours.
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question, and transfer
your answers into the computer sheet provided.
You must answer all 80 questions provided; there are 65 questions (one mark each)
for lecture topics and 15 questions (one mark each) for practical sessions. Use ONLY
ONE answer computer sheet FOR BOTH to end up with 80 answered questions.
Now answer 65 Lecture Topics Questions
1. The following drug can kill hypnozoites of P.vivax and P.ovale:
a. Mefloquine. c. Proguanil.
b. Doxycycline. d. Primaquine.
2. Clinical use of penicillamine include:
a. Copper poisoning. c. Severe rheumatoid arthritis.
b. Wilson's disease. d. All the above.
3. The following are true regarding anti-tuberculous drugs, EXCEPT:
a. Drug combination reduces bacterial resistance.
b. Hepatotoxicity is more likely to occur in slow acetylators of isoniazid.
c. Rifampicin is form first-line antituberculous drugs.
d. Ethambutol may cause optic neuritis and loss of visual acuity.
4. Regarding idiosyncratic reactions (idiosyncrasy), the following are true, EXCEPT:
a. It is a normal (usual) response of a drug or its metabolites.
b. It is infrequent.
c. It is dose-independent.
d. If is genetically determined.
5. Flucytosine is a synthetic antimycotic compound, but fungi lacking cytosine deaminase are
resistant to it. This is because:
a. The synthesis of cytosine is high in these types of fungi.
b. Its conversion to active metabolite (5-fluorouracil) inside the host tissue is inhibited.
c. The production of its active metabolite is very low or might not be produced at all.
d. The crucial source of cytosine for these fungal cells is affected and therefore fungi lacking
cytosine deaminase are resistant to flucytosine.
6. Adverse effects of chloroquine include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Retinopathy with prolonged use.
b. Haemolysis especially in G6PD deficiency persons.
c. Congenital abnormalities when used during pregnancy.
d. Alopecia and bleaching of hair.

Students also viewed

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